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>>>>Being that torque is a measure of force, torque is usually stable through the drive train (give or
take).<<<<
At ANY point in the powertrain, anywhere you select, the formula hp = (torque x rpm) / 5252 has to apply, right? Crank, inside the tranny, driveline, rear wheels, whatever, that relationship between horsepower, torque, and rpm is always true, for any rotating shaft. The formula defines it that way.
So if drivetrain losses are eating horsepower, don't they also have to eat torque and/or rpm? How can I keep torque and rpm the same and have less horsepower?
That's a very good question. Yes, you will lose torque as based on that equation which applies throughout the driveline. I should've chosen my wording a little better. Actually, I don't know what I was thinking. You are right on this point. Drivetrain losses amount to around 20%. Now this varies from vehicle to vehicle, and there is a super complicated formula that will allow you to accurately determine driveline losses. But I just stick with 20%.
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>>>>Torque is what makes the truck move.<<<<
Is it torque at the engine that makes the truck move? Or torque at the rear wheels?
If it's torque at the rear wheels, doesn't gear reduction between the engine and the rear wheels affect that number?
Torque at the engine is what makes the truck move. Yes, gear reduction does affect torque at the rear wheels. So does OD in your transmission. What also comes into play is wheel speed (RPM). If you take the torque at the rear wheels and the rpm of the rear wheels, you can calculate HP. You will see that a 3.0 rear will have the same HP as a 6.0 rear end ratio. The 3.0 will spin faster and thus have less torque to the ground. The 6.0 will have greater torque but spin slower. They will both have the same HP (all other things being equal).
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If the engine's rpm is higher, can't more gear reduction be applied for a given rear wheel speed?
If more gear reduction is applied, doesn't that increase the torque at the rear wheels?
Ultimately, doesn't the highest *combination* of torque and rpm at the engine determine the torque at the rear wheels for any given speed?
Isn't the *combination* of torque and rpm called "horsepower"?
Yes. More torque would be made, but at the sacrifice of wheel speed (RPM). RPM is independent of torque.
So no. Combinations only apply when HP is being calculated. We are assuming that HP is a constant in this discussion (aren't we?).
Yes, the combination is used to determine HP.
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>>>>A diesel, because of it's torque, will do it faster (or get to it's ultimate speed faster).<<<<
Wait, doesn't the highest rear wheel torque accelerate the fastest?
And didn't we just show that highest rear wheel torque at any speed come from the highest combination of torque and rpm (horsepower) at the engine?
So let's say I've got two trucks side by side, one a torquey diesel, the other a peaky gasser. Both are the same weight and have the same size tires Both are at full throttle and making 300hp and going the same speed. The diesel has a whole bunch more torque than the gasser.
Which will accelerate faster?
Both have 300hp at the rear axle, right? And they're going the same speed, right? So the rear wheel rpm is the same, right?
Well, if the hp at the rear wheels is the same, and the rpm at the rear wheels is the same, doesn't the torque at the rear wheels have to be the same, too? Doesn't the formula say so?
So why would the diesel accelerate faster?
That's a very good question. After looking at my post, I realized that I should've chosen my wording much better (again, don't know what I was thinking). I should've stated that a diesel will get to it's peak HP faster than a gasser. That would've been more accurate.
It goes like this. The diesel makes it's peak HP at about 2700 RPM (mine, not yours). So I hit peak HP pretty fast. Where a gasser hit's it's peak HP at around 4500 RPM. It would take the gasser longer to hit peak HP because it has less torque. In this example, my diesel would be making 584 ft-lbs torque at peak HP. The gasser would be making 350 ft-lbs at it's peak HP. So for the same amount of HP, the diesel makes more force to move it's load.
Now assuming a 1:1 transmission in both and a 1:1 rear end in both, the diesel would be only turning the wheels at 2700 RPM at peak HP. That's not nearly as fast as the gasser that will turn it's wheels at 4500 RPM. The diesel just gets there faster. If you were to leave the diesel alone and give the gasser a 1:1.66 ratio, the gasser and the diesel would have the same wheel speed and torque. The engines would be the same, but the gear reduction would equalize the performance between the two.
The statement you made about the HP, and wheel speed being the same therefore torque would be the same is not quite right. RPM wouldn't be the same. It couldn't because the RPM at which both engines make peak HP are different.
The diesel accelrates faster because it hit's it's peak HP faster. Because of more torque for a given RPM. Yes, gear reduction will help the gasser with torque at the sacrifice of wheel speed (RPM).
The biggest benefit to the diesel is it's torque. We know this. This is the force that is generated by the engine (not the work). If it takes 250 ft-lbs to move the load, then both would be able to handle the work (although the gasser would be working harder to maintain it). Then you encounter a hill and it now takes 400 ft-lbs to keep the load moving. The diesel will be able to resist slowing down more efficiently than the gasser, because now the gasser engine has to slow down until it hits an equilibrium RPM when torque matches 400. Downshifting will help accomplish this, but you sacrifice speed. But the diesel can still move the load as it does not have to downshift because the available torque to move the load is higher than is required at 300 HP.
I hope this cleaned things up a little. If you have more questions (or catch another bad choice of wording), post it.